No? Socialism didn’t cause the famine. Famine was not a “price,” it was a historically recurring symptom of underdeveloped feudal agriculture that the soviets abolished as soon as they could.
No? What part of “famine was historically common due to feudal agriculture, so when the soviets collectivized agriculture famine was ended forever” is difficult to understand?
I didn’t lie about any of it. Are you saying famine wasn’t common under the Tsar, or that the 1930s famine wasn’t the last major famine in Eastern Europe outside of World War II?
No? There was mass weather disaster, combined with kulaks destroying grain and killing livestock to sabotage collectivization. Once it became known that there were conditions for famine, grain was redirected. Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?
Because Israel is a genocidal settler-colonial project and it needs them to die off to exist. This is nothing like the Soviet Union, which needed developed agriculture, which is why they collectivized and stopped the worst of the famine. What is your point? Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?
Answer deliberately and clearly, you seem to be allergic to making a coherent point.
No? Socialism didn’t cause the famine. Famine was not a “price,” it was a historically recurring symptom of underdeveloped feudal agriculture that the soviets abolished as soon as they could.
Just in time to kill a few million rebellious rapscallions. Minor oopsie.
No? What part of “famine was historically common due to feudal agriculture, so when the soviets collectivized agriculture famine was ended forever” is difficult to understand?
The lying part
I didn’t lie about any of it. Are you saying famine wasn’t common under the Tsar, or that the 1930s famine wasn’t the last major famine in Eastern Europe outside of World War II?
A famine where millions died despite there being enough food, but the food was stolen by muscovites? No, there wasn’t.
No? There was mass weather disaster, combined with kulaks destroying grain and killing livestock to sabotage collectivization. Once it became known that there were conditions for famine, grain was redirected. Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?
Why do Israelis intentionally starve Palestinian people?
Because Israel is a genocidal settler-colonial project and it needs them to die off to exist. This is nothing like the Soviet Union, which needed developed agriculture, which is why they collectivized and stopped the worst of the famine. What is your point? Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?
Answer deliberately and clearly, you seem to be allergic to making a coherent point.