• Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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      6 days ago

      No? Socialism didn’t cause the famine. Famine was not a “price,” it was a historically recurring symptom of underdeveloped feudal agriculture that the soviets abolished as soon as they could.

        • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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          6 days ago

          No? What part of “famine was historically common due to feudal agriculture, so when the soviets collectivized agriculture famine was ended forever” is difficult to understand?

            • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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              3 days ago

              I didn’t lie about any of it. Are you saying famine wasn’t common under the Tsar, or that the 1930s famine wasn’t the last major famine in Eastern Europe outside of World War II?

              • Tja@programming.dev
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                3 days ago

                A famine where millions died despite there being enough food, but the food was stolen by muscovites? No, there wasn’t.

                • Cowbee [he/they]@lemmy.ml
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                  3 days ago

                  No? There was mass weather disaster, combined with kulaks destroying grain and killing livestock to sabotage collectivization. Once it became known that there were conditions for famine, grain was redirected. Why would they intentionally starve people? Do you think every previous famine in similar conditions was also deliberate?